There is probably exactly one person on planet earth listening to Bahnsen talk about Hegel tonight....me.
When brought before Pilate, people understood him to be saying just that:
Luke 23:2 "And they began to accuse Him, saying, "We found this man misleading our nation and forbidding to pay taxes to Caesar..."
Deut 10:14 "Behold, to the LORD your God belong heaven and the highest heavens, the earth and all that is in it."
The logic is this: give to Caesar what he is due, and give to God what he is due. What belongs to God? Everything. So what belongs to Caesar? Nothing.
And so we're subject to the variables God selects and sets for us which looks to me to be quite a severe constraint on human freedom. But this would violate the premise that God is subject to a constraint of human freedom when optimizing his objective function.
It seems most obvious that one of those constraints is human freedom. My follow on question is that, given Molinism, does God in fact violate the constraints of the objective function? This isn't simply asking IF he can, but whether or not he in fact DOES.
It seems by selecting and tweaking the variables in the obj func. he places constraints on human freedom - we can't influence the selection/tweaking of variables so far as I know.
One of the problems I have with Molinism is that many of it's expositors make God to be the Great Utilitarian or the Great Optimizer. God has an objective function which he seeks to optimize, a menu of variables that he can select and tweak, and is subject to a set of constraints.
This seems problematic to me. What are these constraints and what is the nature of these constraints?
It's interesting that in Tim Keller's argument, he appeals to Josh 7:25 as an instance of "corporate guilt" in the bible. However, he seems to not recognize that there is a variant in Josh 7:25 that is very relevant to his point (cf: LXX Josh 7:25). Not only is it relevant, but it undercuts the argument he's making in the presentation. This is an extremely amateurish lack of awareness and pretty disappointing in someone who should be familiar with this.
Not to mention the act of waving palm branches would have recalled the Maccabean revolt when Simon Maccabee threw off Seleucid rule and "cleansed the temple" (1 Macc 13:49-51).
If the "temple cleansing" was something as described here, then the "triumphal entry" may have similarly resembled a passionate mob rather than people laying down a few coats and calmly waving palm branches.
This is suggested in the NT itself (Mt 21:10, Lk19:37) and seems to cause enough of a stir to worry some in the crowd (Lk 19:39). Perhaps their worry was that the crowd was out of hand?....
As an alternate possible event, we have Jesus' arrest at the Garden of Gethsemane. Rather than imagining it as a passive event where the authorities show up and simply arrest Jesus, this event to may have been rowdy and more difficult
After all, the disciples were armed to some extent (Lk 22:36-38) and at least one is recorded as putting up a fight (Lk 22:49-50). So perhaps there was more resistance than thought?
Though without much further, the "temple cleansing" seems the likely event.
Such a scene in the days leading up to Passover would have been very worrying to both the local authorities and the Romans and could very well have been interpreted by them as seditious and the people involved as "lestes."
So, it's reasonable to conclude that the two criminals, Barabbas, and Jesus were all arrested due to the same occurrence, namely, the "temple cleansing."
Though that's not to say that they were all doing the exact same thing (eg, Barabbas murdered someone, Jesus didn't)
To prevent business, and worry the authorities enough, Jesus would have had sufficient help to cover the large area and sufficient sway with a sufficient number of people so that that the authorities couldn't arrest him and that he could actually achieved his goal.
Thus, the "temple cleansing" may be better imagined as a riotous mob rather than imagining it as an Easter play. In that case, the authorities would have been extremely worried and normal business would likely have stopped.
If, as we might popularly imagine, that it was simply Jesus walking around yelling at people and tumping over a few tables, it would have been somewhat easy for the locals so stop him, and not to mention hardly scary for local authorities. One person creating a scene would have been easy for the temple police to deal with.
Jesus' action in the temple had to be sufficient enough to (a) stop and prevent the normal business of the temple (Mk 11:15-16) and (b) to scare the authorities sufficiently enough so that they would arrest him and turn him over to foreigners for the death penalty.
The temple area was a rather large complex that would have taken no small amount of effort to stop normal business....
We know of no event from historical sources that could be considered an "insurrection" at that time to result in round ups and crucifixions except possibly two: Jesus' incident in the temple and/or the arrest of Jesus is the Garden of Gethsemane.
Pilate would travel to Jerusalem around important days, such as Passover (eg Ant 17.222, War 2.301)
So the two criminals and Barabbas would have likely been arrested at a time near to the time of their trial, sentencing, and execution and when Pilate was in town. The most likely candidate seems to be that they were arrested for something that occurred during the same Passover week when Jesus was arrested.
Prisoners did not await justice for extended periods of time; there was no prison network as we may think. Trials and sentencing were swift, especially for sedition. The Romans also retained the authority to sentence people to death. Thus, the two crucified with Jesus and Barabbas would have likely been arrested in close proximity in time to when Jesus himself was arrested, and likely at a time when Pilate was in town, otherwise they would have been sent to Pilate when he was in Caesarea.
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